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Created January 24, 2024 15:36
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Biology_data.csv
question_id Text Image_path Subject_id year_group_id Difficult_levl catgeory sub_catgeory Option_1_text Option_2_text Option_3_text Option_4_text Correct_option Explanation sub_category_1 sub_category_2 Learn
1 What is the male reproductive part in a flower? 101 12 Easy Biology Reproduction A) Gynoecium B) Petal C) Androecium D) Sepal D In flowers, the structure responsible for producing male gametes (sperm cells) is the stamen. The stamen is the male reproductive part of a flower and typically consists of two main components: 1. Anther: This is the part of the stamen where pollen is produced. Pollen grains contain the male gametes. 2. Filament: This is a slender stalk that supports the anther, raising it to a position where it can more effectively release its pollen. When pollen from the anther is transferred to the stigma of a flower (either the same flower, a different flower on the same plant, or a flower on a different plant of the same species), it can lead to fertilization, where the male gametes in the pollen unite with the female gametes in the ovule. This process is known as pollination and is a critical step in the reproductive cycle of flowering plants. Learn
2 Which part of the pistil receives pollen grains? 101 12 Easy Biology Reproduction A) Ovary B) Style C) Stigma D) Ovule C Learn
3 What is the process of transferring pollen grains from anther to stigma? 101 12 Medium Biology Reproduction A) Fertilization B) Germination C) Pollination D) Metamorphosis C Learn
4 What does the term 'monocarpellary' signify? 101 12 Medium Biology Reproduction A) Many pistils B) Single pistil C) Fused pistils D) No pistils B Learn
5 What is the main function of the tapetum? 101 12 Medium Biology Reproduction A) Supporting ovule B) Attracting pollinators C) Nourishing pollen grains D) Protecting seed C Learn
6 Which part of the flower develops into the fruit? 101 12 Easy Biology Reproduction A) Ovule B) Ovary C) Stamen D) Petal B Learn
7 What is the ploidy of the cells formed after meiosis in microsporogenesis? 101 12 Medium Biology Reproduction A) Haploid B) Diploid C) Triploid D) Tetraploid A Learn
8 What is the outermost layer of the pollen grain? 101 12 Easy Biology Reproduction A) Intine B) Exine C) Cuticle D) Epidermis B Learn
9 What leads to the formation of the embryo sac? 101 12 Medium Biology Reproduction A) Megasporogenesis B) Microsporogenesis C) Fertilization D) Germination A Learn
10 What is the female gametophyte in flowering plants? 101 12 Medium Biology Reproduction A) Ovary B) Ovule C) Embryo Sac D) Stigma C In flowering plants, the female gametophyte is commonly referred to as the embryo sac. It is a key component of the reproductive process in angiosperms (flowering plants) and develops within the ovule of the plant. The development of the female gametophyte begins with the process of meiosis, which occurs in the megaspore mother cell (or megasporocyte) located in the ovule. Meiosis results in the formation of four haploid megaspores, of which typically only one survives. This surviving megaspore undergoes several rounds of mitosis to form a multicellular structure. The typical mature embryo sac of most flowering plants contains eight nuclei, organized into seven cells: 1. One egg cell: The actual gamete that will fuse with the male gamete (sperm) in the process of fertilization. 2. Two synergids: These flank the egg cell and play a role in guiding the pollen tube to the egg for fertilization. 3. Three antipodal cells: These cells are situated at the opposite end of the embryo sac and their function is not fully understood, but they are thought to possibly contribute to the interaction with the surrounding ovular tissues. 4. One central cell: This cell contains two nuclei, known as the polar nuclei. It is this cell that will combine with one sperm cell during double fertilization to form the triploid endosperm, which provides nutrition to the developing embryo. This structure, the embryo sac, is the female gametophyte and it is entirely encased within the ovule, which after fertilization will develop into a seed. The process of double fertilization, unique to angiosperms, not only results in the formation of the embryo from the egg cell and a sperm cell but also the formation of the endosperm from the central cell and a second sperm cell. Learn
11 Which process results in the formation of a zygote? 101 12 Easy Biology Reproduction A) Fertilization B) Pollination C) Germination D) Meiosis A Learn
12 What type of pollination involves transfer of pollen grains within the same flower? 101 12 Medium Biology Reproduction A) Xenogamy B) Geitonogamy C) Autogamy D) Hydrogamy C Learn
13 In which part of the ovule does the embryo develop? 101 12 Medium Biology Reproduction A) Integument B) Nucellus C) Micropyle D) Chalaza B Learn
14 What is the main function of the endosperm in seeds? 101 12 Medium Biology Reproduction A) Protecting embryo B) Attracting pollinators C) Providing nutrition to embryo D) Assisting in seed dispersal C Learn
15 What is apomixis? 101 12 Complex Biology Reproduction A) Seed formation without fertilization B) Seed dispersal mechanism C) Formation of endosperm D) A type of pollination A Learn
16 What is the primary purpose of the filiform apparatus in the synergids? 101 12 Medium Biology Reproduction A) Attracting pollinators B) Guiding pollen tubes C) Protecting the ovule D) Producing nectar B Learn
17 What does a dicotyledonous seed typically have? 101 12 Easy Biology Reproduction A) One cotyledon B) No cotyledons C) Multiple cotyledons D) Two cotyledons D Learn
18 What is the process of meiosis in the megaspore mother cell called? 101 12 Medium Biology Reproduction A) Microsporogenesis B) Megasporogenesis C) Fertilization D) Germination B Learn
19 How is the ovary positioned in a hypogynous flower? 101 12 Medium Biology Reproduction A) Above other floral parts B) Below other floral parts C) At the same level as other floral parts D) Inside the other floral parts A Learn
20 What is the function of nectar in flowers? 101 12 Easy Biology Reproduction A) Nutrition for the embryo B) Attracting pollinators C) Protecting the ovary D) Seed dispersal B Learn
21 What is the outer layer of a pollen grain called? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Intine B) Exine C) Endothecium D) Tapetum B Learn
22 The female gametophyte in flowering plants is known as? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Embryo sac B) Pollen grain C) Ovule D) Anther A Learn
23 Which part of the flower receives pollen during pollination? 101 12 Easy Biology Human Reproduction A) Ovary B) Stigma C) Style D) Anther B Learn
24 What is the function of the tapetum in anthers? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Producing pollen grains B) Nourishing developing pollen grains C) Protecting the ovule D) Attracting pollinators B Learn
25 Double fertilization in flowering plants results in the formation of? 101 12 Complex Biology Human Reproduction A) Two zygotes B) One zygote and one endosperm C) Two different types of endosperm D) Two embryo sacs B Learn
26 What is the main purpose of nectar in flowers? 101 12 Easy Biology Human Reproduction A) Nutrition for the flower B) Attracting pollinators C) Reproduction D) Protecting the flower B Learn
27 How many cells are typically present in a mature angiosperm embryo sac? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) 4 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8 C Learn
28 What is the ploidy level of the primary endosperm nucleus? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Haploid B) Diploid C) Triploid D) Tetraploid C Learn
29 In flowering plants, the fusion of one sperm with the egg cell forms a? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Endosperm B) Zygote C) Second sperm cell D) Polar nucleus B Learn
30 Which process leads to the formation of microspores in anthers? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Mitosis B) Meiosis C) Fertilization D) Pollination B Learn
31 The transfer of pollen from anther to stigma is known as? 101 12 Easy Biology Human Reproduction A) Fertilization B) Pollination C) Germination D) Proliferation B Learn
32 What type of pollination involves transfer within the same flower? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Xenogamy B) Geitonogamy C) Autogamy D) Allogamy C Learn
33 Which part of the pistil develops into a fruit? 101 12 Easy Biology Human Reproduction A) Stigma B) Style C) Ovary D) Ovule C Learn
34 What is the main role of the filiform apparatus in the synergid cells? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Attracting pollinators B) Nutrient absorption C) Guiding pollen tubes D) Seed dispersal C Learn
35 Apomixis in flowering plants refers to? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Formation of seeds without fertilization B) Cross-pollination C) Self-pollination D) Formation of fruits A Learn
36 Which structure in flowers is responsible for producing male gametes? 101 12 Easy Biology Human Reproduction A) Ovary B) Anther C) Stigma D) Petal B Learn
37 What is the primary function of the ovule in flowering plants? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Producing pollen B) Attracting pollinators C) Housing the female gametophyte D) Producing nectar C Learn
38 The process of pollen grain landing on the stigma is termed as? 101 12 Easy Biology Human Reproduction A) Germination B) Pollination C) Fertilization D) Growth B Learn
39 What is the primary result of megasporogenesis? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Formation of male gametes B) Formation of female gametes C) Pollen grain development D) Fruit formation B Learn
40 The part of the flower that develops into a seed is the? 101 12 Easy Biology Human Reproduction A) Petal B) Ovule C) Stigma D) Anther B Learn
41 What is the primary function of Leydig cells in the male reproductive system? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Produce sperm B) Secrete testosterone C) Support sperm motility D) Protect the testes B Learn
42 Which structure in the female reproductive system is the site of fertilization? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Uterus B) Ovary C) Fallopian tube D) Cervix C Learn
43 What is the process of formation of mature sperm called? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Oogenesis B) Spermatogenesis C) Menstruation D) Implantation B Learn
44 During which phase of the menstrual cycle does ovulation occur? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Menstrual phase B) Follicular phase C) Ovulatory phase D) Luteal phase C Learn
45 Which hormone is primarily responsible for the development of secondary sexual characteristics in males? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Estrogen B) Progesterone C) Testosterone D) Luteinizing hormone C Learn
46 What is the term for the release of an ovum from the ovary? 101 12 Easy Biology Human Reproduction A) Menstruation B) Ovulation C) Fertilization D) Implantation B Learn
47 Which part of the sperm contains the genetic material? 101 12 Easy Biology Human Reproduction A) Acrosome B) Tail C) Midpiece D) Head D Learn
48 The fusion of a sperm and an ovum forms a: 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Zygote B) Embryo C) Blastocyst D) Fetus A Learn
49 Which hormone triggers ovulation? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) FSH B) LH C) Estrogen D) Progesterone B Learn
50 The process by which the zygote attaches to the uterine wall is called: 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Ovulation B) Fertilization C) Implantation D) Gestation C Learn
51 Which structure acts as the interface between the mother and the fetus? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Umbilical cord B) Placenta C) Amniotic sac D) Cervix B Learn
52 What marks the end of the menstrual cycle? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Menopause B) Menarche C) Ovulation D) Parturition A Learn
53 Which phase of the menstrual cycle involves the regeneration of the endometrium? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Menstrual B) Follicular C) Ovulatory D) Luteal B Learn
54 The primary male sex hormone produced by the testes is: 101 12 Easy Biology Human Reproduction A) Estrogen B) Progesterone C) Testosterone D) FSH C Learn
55 What is the primary function of the acrosome in sperm cells? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Energy production B) Facilitating sperm motility C) Penetrating the egg D) Carrying genetic information C Learn
56 Which hormone maintains the endometrium during the early stages of pregnancy? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Estrogen B) Progesterone C) LH D) FSH B Learn
57 The process of giving birth is known as: 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Ovulation B) Menstruation C) Parturition D) Fertilization C Learn
58 What is the function of FSH in the female reproductive system? 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Inducing ovulation B) Developing follicles C) Maintaining pregnancy D) Forming the corpus luteum B Learn
59 Sperm cells are primarily stored and matured in the: 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Seminiferous tubules B) Epididymis C) Vas deferens D) Prostate gland B Learn
60 The structure that nourishes the developing fetus is the: 101 12 Medium Biology Human Reproduction A) Uterus B) Placenta C) Ovary D) Fallopian tube B Learn
61 What is the average length of a human ovary? 101 12 Easy Biology Human Reproduction A) 2-4 cm B) 1-2 cm C) 4-6 cm D) 8-10 cm A Learn
62 How many primary follicles are left in each ovary at puberty? 101 12 Easy Biology Human Reproduction A) 20,000-30,000 B) 40,000-50,000 C) 60,000-80,000 D) 1,00,000-1,20,000 C Learn
63 What induces ovulation during the menstrual cycle? 101 12 Easy Biology Human Reproduction A) Progesterone B) Relaxin C) LH surge D) hCG C Learn
64 Which cells provide nutrition to the germ cells in seminiferous tubules? 101 12 Easy Biology Human Reproduction A) Interstitial cells B) Sertoli cells C) Leydig cells D) Myoid cells B Learn
65 What is the process by which sperms are released from seminiferous tubules? 101 12 Easy Biology Human Reproduction A) Spermiogenesis B) Spermatogenesis C) Spermiation D) Androgenesis C Learn
66 How many chromosomes are present in secondary spermatocytes? 101 12 Complex Biology Reproductive Health A) 46 B) 23 C) 16 D) 4 B Learn
67 Granulosa cells surround 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) Primary oocyte B) Secondary oocyte C) Primary follicle D) Corpus luteum C Learn
68 Which cells secrete testicular hormones called androgens? 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) Sertoli cells B) Leydig cells C) Myoid cells D) All B Learn
69 Fertilization occurs in which part of the female reproductive system? 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) Ovary B) Uterus C) Fallopian tube D) Cervix C Learn
70 Which embryonic layer gives rise to the organs and tissues in adults? 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) Ectoderm B) Endoderm C) Mesoderm D) All of the above D Learn
71 What induces mild uterine contractions during parturition? 101 12 Complex Biology Reproductive Health A) Oxytocin B) Relaxin C) Foetal ejection reflex D) hPL C Learn
72 The hormone human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is produced by 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) Ovary B) Placenta C) Pituitary D) Uterus B Learn
73 How many X chromosomes are present in male gametes (sperms)? 101 12 Complex Biology Reproductive Health A) 1 B) 23 C) 0 D) 2 C Learn
74 Which cells undergo meiosis during spermatogenesis? 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) Sertoli cells B) Leydig cells C) Myoid cells D) Primary spermatocytes D Learn
75 What is the other name for menstrual cycle? 101 12 Complex Biology Reproductive Health A) Ovulatory cycle B) Reproductive cycle C) Estrous cycle D) None of the above B Learn
76 The hormone relaxin during pregnancy is produced by 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) Ovary B) Placenta C) Pituitary D) Uterus A Learn
77 The external female genitalia includes 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) Mons pubis B) Labia C) Clitoris D) All of the above D Learn
78 The inner cell mass in the blastocyst develops into the 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) Embryo B) Trophoblast C) Placenta D) Amnion A Learn
79 Which cells produce the female gamete (ovum)? 101 12 Complex Biology Reproductive Health A) Theca cells B) Granulosa cells C) Follicle cells D) Oogonia D Learn
80 The functional unit between fetus and uterus is 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) Cervix B) Placenta C) Myometrium D) Fallopian tube B Learn
81 What is the average duration of human pregnancy? 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) 8 months B) 9 months C) 10 months D) 12 months B Learn
82 Which cells provide androgenic support for maintenance of spermatogenesis? 101 12 Complex Biology Reproductive Health A) Sertoli cells B) Leydig cells C) Myoid cells D) All of the above B Learn
83 conversion of morula into blastocyst occurs at 101 12 Complex Biology Reproductive Health A) Uterus B) Cervix C)Isthmus D)ampulla A Learn
84 In human males, after attainment of puberty how many sperms are found in per ejaculate? 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A)60-80 million B)100-200 million C) 200-300 million D) 500-600 million C Learn
85 Parturition is induced by which hormone? 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) Relaxin B) Oxytocin C) Estrogen D) hCG B Learn
86 The second meiotic division during oogenesis produces: 101 12 Complex Biology Reproductive Health A) Ootid and first polar body B) First polar body C) Second polar body D) Secondary oocyte A Learn
87 Which cells are arranged into an outer layer called trophoblast? 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) Morula cells B) Blastocyst cells C) Zygote cells D) Embryo cells B Learn
88 After how many days does implantation occur? 101 12 Complex Biology Reproductive Health A) 7-10 days B) 14-16 days C) 21-23 days D) 28-30 days B Learn
89 The external female genitalia develops from 101 12 Complex Biology Reproductive Health A) Endoderm B) Ectoderm C) Mesoderm D) None B Learn
90 Menstruation occurs due to breakdown of 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) Endometrium B) Myometrium C) Perimetrium D) Fallopian tube A Learn
91 Finger-like projections in placenta for nutrient transport are called 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) Cotyledons B) Chorionic villi C) Trabeculae D) Lobules B Learn
92 Which hormone peaks during the mid-cycle causing ovulation? 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) FSH B) LH C) hPL D) hCG B Learn
93 The zona pellucida layer surrounds the 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) Primary oocyte B) Secondary oocyte C) Ovum D) Zygote C Learn
94 The uterinen layer responsible for contractions during parturition is 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) Perimetrium B) Myometrium C) Endometrium D) Epimetrium B Learn
95 The first movements of fetus is observed during 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) 3rd month B) 4th month C) 5th month D) 6th month C Learn
96 Which cells degenerate after ovulation? 101 12 Complex Biology Reproductive Health A) Stromal cells B) Granulosa cells C) Theca cells D) All B Learn
97 The maternal blood fills spaces in the placenta called 101 12 Complex Biology Reproductive Health A) Lacunae B) Lobules C) Villi D) Follicles A Learn
98 Secretion of which hormone stimulates lactation? 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) hCG B) Prolactin C) Relaxin D) Inhibin B Learn
99 The diploid zygote has ____ chromosomes. 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) 23 B) 36 C) 46 D) 92 C Learn
100 Parturition in humans is an example of 101 12 Complex Biology Reproductive Health A) Oviparity B) Ovoviviparity C) Viviparity D) None C Learn
101 Which cells surround the primary follicle? 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) Stromal cells B) Myoepithelial cells C) Granulosa cells D) Theca cells C Learn
102 At puberty ____ are formed. 101 12 Complex Biology Reproductive Health A) No new oogonia B) Some oogonia C) Many oogonia D) Few oogonia A Learn
103 The morula enters the uterus at about ____ day after fertilization. 101 12 Complex Biology Reproductive Health A) 7th B) 5th C) 3rd D) 10th B Learn
104 The corpus luteum degenerates in absence of _____. 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) Pregnancy B) Ovulation C) Implantation D) Fertilisation A Learn
105 The fluid filled cavity in a secondary follicle is called ____. 101 12 Easy Biology Reproductive Health A) Zona pellucida B) Antrum C) Corpus luteum D) Fimbriae B Learn
106 Reproductive health refers to 101 12 Simple Biology Reproductive Health A) Physical health B) Social health C) Emotional health D) All of the above D Learn
107 The expanded form of MMR in context of reproductive health is 101 12 Simple Biology Reproductive Health A) Maternal Mortality Rate B) Minimum Mortality Rate C) Mixed Mortality Rate D) None A Learn
108 According to 2011 census, the population growth rate per year in India is approximately 101 12 Simple Biology Reproductive Health A) 1% B) 1.5% C) 2% D) 2.5% C Learn
109 Which Act legalised MTP in India? 101 12 Simple Biology Reproductive Health A) The PNDT Act B) The MTP Act C) The PC-PNDT Act D) None B Learn
110 Which cells secrete testicular hormones called androgens? 101 12 Simple Biology Reproductive Health A) Sertoli cells B) Leydig cells C) Myoid cells D) All B Learn
111 The expansion of IUD as a contraceptive is 101 12 Simple Biology Reproductive Health A) Intra Uterine Device B) Intra Uterine Delivery C) Intra Uterine Diaphragm D) None A Learn
112 Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen can be used by females as 101 12 Simple Biology Reproductive Health A) Patches B) Tablets C) Injections D) All D Learn
113 According to MTP act, which week of pregnancy abortion can be done? 101 12 Complex Biology Reproductive Health A) only first 12 weeks B) only first 20 weeks C) only first 24 weeks D) any time C Learn
114 In India, often ______ is blamed for the couple being childless 101 12 Complex Biology Reproductive Health A) male partner B) female partner C) both partners D) none B Learn
115 Select the barrier method of contraception 101 12 Simple Biology Reproductive Health A) Lippes loop B) CuT C) Condoms D) Implanon C Learn
116 Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within _____ following coitus 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) 12 hrs B) 24 hrs C) 48 hrs D) 72 hrs D Learn
117 Which STD is not completely curable? 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Gonorrhea B) Syphilis C) Hepatitis B D) HIV C Learn
118 Pelvic inflammatory disease can lead to 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Still birth B) Infertility C) Cancer D) All D Learn
119 Syphilis is caused by 101 12 Complex Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Bacteria B) Virus C) Protozoa D) Fungus A Learn
120 Select the natural method of contraception 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Diaphragm B) Copper-T C) Lactational amenorrhea D) Tubectomy C Learn
121 The most abundant cells in semen are 101 12 Complex Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Sperms B) Epithelial cells C) Leukocytes D) Immature germ cells D Learn
122 Cancer of the reproductive tract can happen due to 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Multiple sex partners B) Smoking C) Untreated STDs D) All D Learn
123 Infertility clinics deal with 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Birth control procedures B) High risk pregnancies C) Prenatal testing D) Assisted reproductive technologies D Learn
124 The developing embryo implants in 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Oviduct B) Uterus C) Cervix D) Vagina B Learn
125 The male external genital organ is 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Scrotum B) Testis C) Penis D) Vas deferens C Learn
126 Minimum legal age at marriage in India for a boy is 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) 18 years B) 19 years C) 20 years D) 21 years D Learn
127 The fluid that nourishes the embryo is called 101 12 Complex Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Follicular fluid B) Cervical mucus C) Vaginal secretion D) Amniotic fluid D Learn
128 Which cells provide nutrition to the dividing germ cells in seminiferous tubules? 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Sertoli cells B) Leydig cells C) Myoid cells D) All A Learn
129 The inner cell mass in blastocyst develops into 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Trophoblast B) Placenta C) Embryo D) Amnion C Learn
130 A copper releasing IUD works by 101 12 Complex Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Making uterus unsuitable for implantation B) Causing immunological reaction C) Aborting the embryo D) None of the above D Learn
131 The process of release of ovum from a mature follicle is called 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Ovulation B) Gestation C) Implantation D) Parturition A Learn
132 The sperm contains an enzyme called acrosome which helps in 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Motility B) Fertilization C) Capacitation D) Metabolism B Learn
133 Which reproductive organ produces sperms? 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Vas deferens B) Testis C) Epididymis D) Seminal vesicle B Learn
134 The maternal mortality rate depends on 101 12 Complex Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Literacy status B) Healthcare facilities C) Income status D) All of these D Learn
135 Which cells undergo meiosis during spermatogenesis? 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Sertoli cells B) Leydig cells C) Primary spermatocytes D) Secondary spermatocytes C Learn
136 The most important strategy for reproductive health is 101 12 Complex Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Contraception B) Medical termination of pregnancy C) Amniocentesis D) Spreading awareness D Learn
137 The inner glandular layer of the uterus is called 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Perimetrium B) Myometrium C) Endometrium D) Epimetrium C Learn
138 The Expand IUI full form is 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Intra Urethral Insemination B) Intra Uterine Insemination C) Intra Urinary Insemination D) None B Learn
139 Finger-like projections for nutrient transport in the placenta are called 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Cotyledons B) Trabeculae C) Chorionic villi D) Crypts C Learn
140 Hymen is a membrane that surrounds the 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Mons pubis B) Labia C) Cervix D) Vaginal opening D Learn
141 The hormone hCG during pregnancy is produced by 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Ovary B) Anterior pituitary C) Placenta D) Posterior pituitary C Learn
142 Menarche is the beginning of 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Menopause B) Menstrual cycle C) Gestation period D) Parturition B Learn
143 Infertility may be due to 101 12 Complex Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Congenital defects B) Diseases C) Drugs D) All D Learn
144 Fimbriae help in 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Nutrition of ovum B) Collection of ovum C) Implantation D) Conduction of sperms B Learn
145 Emergency contraception is effective if the pill is taken within 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) 24 hours B) 48 hours C) 72 hours D) 96 hours C Learn
146 Select the treatment for syphilis 101 12 Complex Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Pencillin B) Tetracycline C) Local ointments D) None A The treatment for syphilis typically involves the use of antibiotics, with penicillin being the most commonly prescribed. Early stages of syphilis are easier to treat, while later stages may require more intensive therapy. For primary, secondary, and early latent syphilis, a single intramuscular injection of penicillin G is usually sufficient. For late latent syphilis or syphilis of unknown duration, three doses at weekly intervals are recommended. For those allergic to penicillin, alternative antibiotics like doxycycline or azithromycin may be used, although they are generally considered less effective than penicillin. It's important to note that while antibiotics can stop the infection, they cannot repair any damage that the syphilis may have already caused. Also, sexual partners should be notified, tested, and treated if necessary. Treatment should always be carried out under the guidance of a healthcare professional. Regular follow-up blood tests are necessary to ensure the infection has been fully treated. Learn
147 Menopause typically occurs around 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) 35-40 years B) 40-45 years C) 45-50 years D) 55-60 years C Learn
148 The muscular wall of the uterus is the 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Perimetrium B) Myometrium C) Endometrium D) Chorion B Learn
149 The key strategy to control population explosion is 101 12 Complex Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Prenatal testing B) Postnatal testing C) Use of contraceptives D) Infertility medicines C Learn
150 ____________ is the inability to conceive even after 2 years of unprotected coitus. 101 12 Simple Biology Genetics and Evolution A) MTP B) STD C) Infertility D) IUI C Learn
151 Cu ions from CuT reduce _____________ of sperms. 101 12 Complex Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Number B) Size C) Motility D) Viability C Learn
152 Post tubectomy, menstrual cycle is 101 12 Complex Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Painful B) Irregular C) More painful D) Normal D Learn
153 The main reservoir of the HIV in males is present in the 101 12 Complex Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Blood B) Semen C) Lymph nodes D) Urine B Learn
154 Select the correct sequence in human reproductive tract through which sperms are transported to meet ovum. 101 12 Complex Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Seminiferous tubule - Vasa efferentia - Epididymis - Vas deferens - Ejaculatory duct B) Epididymis - Vas deferens - Vasa efferentia - Seminiferous tubule - Ejaculatory duct C) Vas deferens - Vasa efferentia - Epididymis - Seminiferous tubule - Ejaculatory duct D) Vas deferens - Ejaculatory duct - Epididymis - Vasa efferentia - Seminiferous tubule A Learn
155 The inner cell mass present in the blastocyst develops into which embryonic layer? 101 12 Complex Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Endoderm B) Mesoderm C) Ectoderm D) Trophoblast D Learn
156 Who proposed the Laws of Inheritance? 101 12 Easy Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Sutton B) Morgan C) Mendel D) Boveri C Learn
157 What are the contrasting traits in pea plants studied by Mendel called? 101 12 Easy Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Factors B) Genes C) Chromosomes D) Alleles A Learn
158 What name is given to the first generation plants obtained by crossing two true breeding varieties? 101 12 Easy Biology Genetics and Evolution A) P1 B) F1 C) F2 D) Hybrid B Learn
159 What ratio was observed by Mendel in monohybrid F2 generation for a pair of contrasting traits? 101 12 Easy Biology Genetics and Evolution A) 1:2:1 B) 2:1:1 C) 3:1 D) 1:1 C Learn
160 The law that alleles do not blend and segregate in F1 generation is the 101 12 Medium Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Law of dominance B) Law of segregation C) Law of independent assortment D) Law of linkage B Learn
161 Incomplete dominance results in F1 hybrids having 101 12 Medium Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Intermediate phenotype B) Dominant phenotype C) Recessive phenotype D) Lethal phenotype A Learn
162 The structure that Mendel called 'factors' are now called 101 12 Easy Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Chromosomes B) Traits C) Genes D) Chromatids C Learn
163 Test cross is done between 101 12 Easy Biology Genetics and Evolution A) TT and tt B) TT and Tt C) Tt and tt D) Tt and Tt C Learn
164 According to the chromosomal theory of inheritance, 101 12 Medium Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Genes are located on chromosomes B) Chromosome pairs segregate independently C) Linked genes show higher recombination D) All of the above D Learn
165 Genes that are situated on same chromosomes show 101 12 Medium Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Independent assortment B) Linkage C) Crossing over D) None B Learn
166 Dihybrid test cross results in F2 generation plants in the ratio 101 12 Complex Biology Genetics and Evolution A) 9:3:3:1 B) 1:1:1:1 C) 12:3:1 D) 9:7 A Learn
167 Sickle cell anemia results due to 101 12 Medium Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Point mutation B) Deletion C) Insertion D) Translocation A Learn
168 Sickle cell anemia is an example of __________ inheritance. 101 12 Easy Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Dominant B) Recessive C) X linked D) Y linked B Learn
169 Genes located on Y chromosome are called 101 12 Complex Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Holandric genes B) Pleotropic genes C) Autosomal genes D) Multiple allele genes A Learn
170 Haemophilia shows which type of inheritance? 101 12 Easy Biology Genetics and Evolution A) X linked dominant B) Autosomal dominant C) X linked recessive D) Y linked C Learn
171 Select the correct statement 101 12 Easy Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Recessive gene is always expressed in heterozygous condition B) Dominant trait masks recessive trait in F1 generation C) Law of dominance governs inheritance of one trait D) All B Learn
172 Down's syndrome is an example of 101 12 Easy Biology Genetics and Evolution A) Euploidy B) Aneuploidy C) Klinefelter syndrome D) Polyploidy B Learn
173 Klinefelter's syndrome results due to 101 12 Easy Biology Genetics and Evolution A) XXY condition B) XXX condition C) XY condition D) XYY condition A Learn
174 Father Christmas phenotype with AB blood group marries a woman with O blood group. All children were 'B' group. Father's genotype is 101 12 Complex Biology Genetics and Evolution A) IAIB B) IAIO C) IBIB D) IBIO A Learn
175 When a pure tall pea plant was crossed with pure dwarf one, in F1 generation 101 12 Easy Biology Genetics and Evolution A) All plants are tall B) All plants are dwarf B) Half plants are tall and half are dwarf C) 3/4th plants are tall A Learn
176 If a round, yellow seeded pea plant is crossed with wrinkled, green seeded plant. The F1 seeds will be 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Round and yellow B) Round and green C) Wrinkled and yellow D) Round, yellow and green A Learn
177 law of dominance was proposed by 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Sutton B) Boveri C) Morgan D) Mendel D Learn
178 When a tall pea plant with yellow seeds (TtYy) is crossed with pure tall plant with green seeds (Ttyy). The proportion of yellow round seeds will be 101 12 Medium Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) 1 B) 3/4 C) 1/2 D) 1/4 B Learn
179 Morgan's work with fruit flies proved that 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Genes are located on chromosomes B) Chromosomes undergo independent assortment C) Crossing over takes place during meiosis D) All D Learn
180 In humans, how many types of male gametes can be produced? 101 12 Medium Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) 1 B) 3 C) 22 D) 2 D Learn
181 In a cross between heterozygous red flower plant and homozygous white flower plant. The F1 generation will have _________ flower. 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Red B) White C) Pink D) Red and white A Learn
182 Human males are _________ for the trait 'Haemophilia' 101 12 Medium Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Homozygous B) Heterozygous C) Hemizygous D) Nullizygous C Learn
183 If there are 4 loci in an organism, how many types of gametes can be formed if the organism is heterozygous at all 4 loci? 101 12 Complex Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) 16 B) 8 C) 4 D) 32 A Learn
184 If a round seeded pea plant with green seeds (RRyy) is crossed with wrinkled yellow seeded plant the F1 progeny will be 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) RrYy B) RrYy C) RRyy D) rrYY B Learn
185 The frequency of recombination between gene pairs reflects 101 12 Complex Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Genetic linkage B) Allele frequency C) Dominance D) Independent assortment A Learn
186 In a dihybrid cross, the phenotype ratio in F2 generation is 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) 9:3:4 B) 9:3:3:1 C) 1:2:1 D) 3:1 B Learn
187 Who proposed the chromosomal theory of inheritance? 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Mendel B) Sutton C) Morgan D) Sutton and Boveri D Learn
188 Select gametes from parents IAI BI and IAIO 101 12 Medium Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) IA , IB B) IO, BI C) IA, IB, I0 D) All D Learn
189 How many chromosomes are present in Down’s Syndrome patients? 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) 45 B) 44 C) 47 D) 46 C Learn
190 In a dihybrid cross, what ratio did Mendel observe in F2 generation? 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) 9:3:3:1 B) 9:6:1 C) 12:3:1 D) 13:3 A Learn
191 The pairing and separation of chromosomes during meiosis was linked to Mendel's laws by 101 12 Medium Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Bateson and Punnett B) Sutton and Boveri C) Morgan and Sturtevant D) Mendel and Sutton B Learn
192 If a pea plant with round green seeds (RrYy) is crossed with wrinkled yellow seeded plants. The F1 phenotypic ratio will be 101 12 Complex Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) All green round B) 1:1 round to wrinkles; all green C) All round yellow D) 9:3:3:1 round yellow to wrinkled yellow to round green to wrinkled green C Learn
193 When a pure line is crossed with recessive parent, to determine whether the offspring in F1 generation are heterozygous the cross is called 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Reciprocal cross B) Dihybrid cross C) Back cross D) Test cross D Learn
194 In a dihybrid cross of RRYY and rryy, F1 progeny will be 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) RRyy B) RrYy C) RrYY D) rrYy B Learn
195 Mutation that substitutes one base with another base is called 101 12 Complex Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Transition B) Transversion C) Deletion D) Inversion B Learn
196 The term 'gene' was coined by 101 12 Complex Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Mendel B) Sutton C) Morgan D) Johannsen D Learn
197 Morgan and his colleagues worked on 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Garden peas B) Fruit flies C) Neurospora D) E.Coli B Learn
198 A colour blind man marries a woman who is carrier for colour blindness, the probability for a son being colour blind is 101 12 Complex Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) 0 B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% C Learn
199 Two parents who do not have sickle cell allele can produce a baby with sickle cell allele. This statement is 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) True B) False B Learn
200 How many types of male gametes will be produced through meiosis from an individual AA BB CC DD EE? 101 12 Complex Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) 4 B) 2 C) 32 D) 16 D Learn
201 Absence of 21st Chromosome leads to 101 12 Medium Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Klinefelter Syndrome B) Turner's Syndrome C) Down's Syndrome D) Patau Syndrome C Learn
202 Linked genes are typically located on 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Homologous chromosomes B) Non homologous chromosomes c) Sex chromosomes D) Same chromosome D Learn
203 Which of Mendel's law is universal and always applicable? 101 12 Complex Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Law of Dominance B) Law of Segregation C) Law of Independent Assortment D) Law of sex linkage B Learn
204 In multiple alleles, how many alleles control the same character? 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Many B) 4 C) 3 D) 2 C Learn
205 Mutations which involve gain or loss of a portion of a chromosome are called 101 12 Complex Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Substitution B) Deletion C) Insertions D) Inversion B Learn
206 What is the term used when one gene controls more than one phenotypic character? 101 12 Medium Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Polygenic inheritance B) Pleiotropy C) Codominance D) Multiple alleles B Learn
207 What ratio was observed by Mendel in dihybrid F2 generation? 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) 9:3:3:1 B) 1:2:1 C) 9:7 D) 3:1 A Learn
208 If a heterozygous tall plant (Tt) is crossed with a homozygous dwarf plant (tt) the F1 phenotype will be 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) 100% tall plants B) 50% tall and 50% dwarf C) 75% tall and 25% dwarf D) 25% tall and 75% dwarf A Learn
209 Human male is said to exhibit 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) XO type of sex determination B) ZW type of sex determination C) XY type of sex determination D) ZZ type of sex determination C Learn
210 The inheritance of ABO blood group system exhibits 101 12 Medium Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Complete dominance B) Codominance C) Incomplete dominance D) Multiple allelism D Learn
211 How many types of female gametes can be produced by a human female? 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 A Learn
212 Transition type of mutation is exchange between 101 12 Complex Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Purine to Pyrimidine B) Pyrimidine to Purine C) Adenine to Guanine D) Cytosine to Thymine B Learn
213 Phenylketonuria is controlled by 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Single gene B) 2 genes C) Chromosomal aberration D) Cytoplasmic factors A Learn
214 Morgan's work provided evidence that 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Alleles are real factors B) Factors are associated with genes C) Genes located on chromosomes D) All of the above D Learn
215 A woman with blood group A marries a man with blood group B. The possible blood groups of their children would be 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) A and B only B) A, B, AB and O C) A and O only D) B and AB only B Learn
216 Phenotype refers to 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Physical appearance B) Genetic makeup C) Dominant traits D) Recessive traits A Learn
217 Mendel proposed 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) One plant produces one gamete B) One plant produces two gamete C) One gamete contains one allele D) All of the above D Learn
218 If a circular chromosome breaks at two points and the segment between the breaks is inverted, it is called 101 12 Medium Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Deletion B) Inversion C) Insertion D) Translocation B Learn
219 Chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed by 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Mendel B) Morgan C) Sutton and Boveri D) Bateson and Punnet C Learn
220 When a cross is made between heterozygote round, yellow seeds (RrYy) and homozygous wrinkled, green seeds; F2 phenotypic ratio would be 101 12 Complex Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) 9:3:3:1 B) 12:3:1 C) 13:3 D) 9:7 A Learn
221 Which chromosome determines the sex of a human child? 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Autosome B) X chromosome C) Y chromosome D) Either X or Y chromosome D Learn
222 Who gave the concept of particulate inheritance? 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Darwin B) Morgan C) Mendel D) Sutton C Learn
223 In a test cross, if progeny shows 50% dominant trait and 50% recessive trait, then the individual under test is 101 12 Medium Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Homozygous dominant B) Homozygous recessive C) Heterozygous D) None C Learn
224 What is the probability of a child being affected with Thalassemia, if mother is normal(Rr) and father has Thalassemia (rr)? 101 12 Complex Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% B Learn
225 When a long orange chromosome pairs with short green chromosome during meiosis I, the distribution of chromosome and gene is represented in which column of possibility 101 12 Complex Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) I B) II C) Both D) None C Learn
226 In chickens, the sex chromosomes in males are 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) XY B) ZZ C) XO D) ZW B Learn
227 The actual basis of inheritance is present on 101 12 Medium Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Genes B) Chromosomes C) DNA D) None C Learn
228 If there are 4 pairs of contrasting traits in an organism what will be the F2 ratio from a dihybrid cross? 101 12 Complex Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) 9:3:3:1 B) 9:3:6:1 C) 16:4:2:1 D) 16:2:1:1 D Learn
229 Mendel proposed the idea of segregation of alleles while 101 12 Complex Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) Sutton proposed chromosomal theory of inheritance B) Morgan proposed theory of linkage and crossing over C) Beadle and Tatum proposed one gene one enzyme theory D) Watson and Crick proposed DNA double helical model A Learn
230 In humans number of chromosomes are 46 arranged in how many pairs? 101 12 Easy Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance A) 22 pairs B) 23 pairs C) 24 pairs D) 21 pairs B Learn
231 Who showed that DNA is the genetic material? 101 12 Medium Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Watson and Crick B) Sutton and Boveri C) Griffith D) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty D Learn
232 Which disease is not a Mendelian disorder? 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Phenylketonuria B) Down syndrome C) Sickle cell anemia D) Haemophilia B Learn
233 In a dihybrid cross between RRYY x rryy , the F2 ratio for plants with round yellow seeds will be 101 12 Medium Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 C Learn
234 In pedigree analysis, a shaded circle represents 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) A female B) An affected female C) Carrier female D) Normal female B Learn
235 Morgan and his group discovered 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Law of dominance B) Law of independent assortment C) Linkage D) Law of segregation C Learn
236 Who proposed the DNA double helical model? 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Watson & Crick B) Mendel C) Morgan D) Meischer A Learn
237 _______ are joined by a bond called peptide bond. 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Amino acids B) Nucleotides C) DNA bases D) Sugars A Learn
238 Number of nucleotide pairs in a typical mammalian cell is _____. 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) 10 B) 100 C) 10,000 D) 6.6 billion D Learn
239 RNA is ____ than DNA. 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Less stable B) More stable A Learn
240 Central dogma refers to flow of genetic information from 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) DNA → RNA → Protein B) Protein → RNA → DNA C) Protein → DNA → RNA D) RNA → Protein → DNA A Learn
241 Who proved that DNA is the genetic material? 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Griffith B) Meselson & Stahl C) Hershey & Chase D) Watson & Crick C Learn
242 A Polymer made up of deoxyribonucleotides is called 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) tRNA B) DNA C) mRNA D) rRNA B Learn
243 Which enzyme links amino acids through a peptide bond? 101 12 Medium Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) DNA polymerase B) RNA polymerase C) Peptidyl transferase D) DNA ligase C Learn
244 In lac operon _________ act as operator. 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) I gene B) z gene C) Lactose D) Glucose A Learn
245 Nitrogen base found in RNA but not in DNA is 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Cytosine B) Uracil C) Thymine D) Adenine B Learn
246 rRNA performs _______ function during translation. 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Catalytic B)Structural C) Recognition D) Activation A Learn
247 Chargaff's rule states that ratio between Adenine and Thymine and Guanine and Cytosine is 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) 2:1 B) 1:3 C) 1:1 D) 3:2 C Learn
248 The enzyme used by Sanger for DNA sequencing is 101 12 Medium Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Taq polymerase B) DNA polymerase C) Reverse Transcriptase D) RNA polymerase B Learn
249 In lac operon, allolactose acts as 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Inducer B) Corepressor C) Operator D) Promoter A Learn
250 In human beings, the total number of genes are approximately 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) 1 lac B) 30,000 C) 80,000 D) 25,000 B Learn
251 DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Non coding DNA B) Coding DNA C) RNA D) Satellite DNA D Learn
252 bonds that hold the two strands of DNA together are 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) peptide bonds B) glycosidic bonds C) phosphodiester bonds D) hydrogen bonds D Learn
253 What are the total predicted genes in E.Coli ? 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) app 4000 B) app 5000 C) app 6000 D) app 7000 A Learn
254 mRNA possesses intron but not tRNA because 101 12 Medium Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) mRNA expression requires post transcriptional modification B) mRNA is eukaryotic C) tRNA is not coding molecule D) tRNA does not leave nucleus A Learn
255 Select the enzyme which catalyses the formation of phosphodiester bonds in DNA 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) DNA polymerase B) DNA ligase C) Helicase D) Topoisomerase A Learn
256 The expansions of VNTR in DNA fingerprinting is 101 12 Medium Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Variable nucleotide tandem repeats B) Variable no tandem regions C) Variable number tandem repeats D) Variable nitrogen tandem repeats C Learn
257 Type of bond linking between DNA polymerases in a polynucleotide chain 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Glycosidic bond B) Hydrogen bond C) Phosphodiester bond D) Peptide bond C Learn
258 Which of the following is not involved in translation? 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) mRNA B) tRNA C) rRNA D) siRNA D Learn
259 In E.coli, lac operon is activated in presence of _________ and glucose acts as ______ for lac operon. 101 12 Medium Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Lactose, inducer B) Lactose, corepressor C) Glucose, inducer D) Glucose, corepressor A Learn
260 Homogenous copies of parent DNA strands are produces by ______. 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Translation B) Transcription C) Replication D) Transformation C Learn
261 Which of the following act as adapter molecule? 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) RNA polymerase B) DNA polymerase C) DNA ligase D) tRNA D Learn
262 In lac operon, i gene encodes 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Lactose cleaving enzyme B) Glucose permease C) Lactose promoter D) lac repressor D Learn
263 The process of making multiple identical copies from one original DNA fragment is called ________. 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Northern blotting B) Polymerase chain reaction C) Gene cloning D) DNA fingerprinting B Learn
264 In DNA double helix, the two strands are 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) coiled around each other B) coiled differently C) parallel D) anti-parallel D Learn
265 The RNA which acts as template for synthesis of protein is 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) mRNA B) tRNA C) miRNA D) rRNA A Learn
266 Which does not require energy consumption? 101 12 Medium Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Glycolysis B) DNA replication C) Protein folding D) Diffusion D Learn
267 If sequence of m-RNA is 5' AAAUUCG 3', the sequence of DNA is 101 12 Complex Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) 5' TTTAAGC 3' B) 3' TTTAAGC 5' C) 5' AAATTCG 3' D) 5' TTTAAGGC 3' B Learn
268 Pattern of inheritance of Mendelian traits depends on 101 12 Medium Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) DNA B) Protein C) Lipid D) Carbohydrates A Learn
269 Okazaki fragments are formed during 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) DNA replication B) RNA synthesis C) Protein synthesis D) Purine synthesis A Learn
270 Identify true statement 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) DNA involves charging of tRNA with amino acids B) mRNA is formed in 3'→ 5' direction C) rRNA serves as template for proteins D) Genes do not contain introns B Learn
271 Termination codon does not code for an amino acid because 101 12 Medium Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) both DNA strands code for mRNAs B) these codons code for release factors C) DNA transcription terminates at these codons D) DNA polymerase recognizes these codons B Learn
272 Digested DNA fragments are separated by 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis B) Isoelectric focusing C) Column chromatography D) Southern blotting A Learn
273 Select true statement 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) DNA replication occurs in nucleus B) DNA replication requires DNA polymerase C) DNA polymerase also synthesises RNA D) In bacteria the DNA is actively divided B Learn
274 Nicking of Okazaki fragments in DNA replication requires 101 12 Medium Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) DNA gyrase B) Topoisomerase C) DNA polymerase D) DNA ligase D Learn
275 Which enzyme synthesis DNA using RNA template? 101 12 Medium Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Topoisomerase B) Reverse transcriptase C) DNA polymerase D) DNA ligase B Learn
276 Formation of peptide bond requires __________ and ______________. 101 12 Complex Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) ATP, aminoacyl t-RNA synthatase B) EF-Tu, ATP C) ATP, ribosome D) ATP, EF-G D Learn
277 If n is the no. of genes in E.Coli & the size is 1500 kbp (1kbp=10^3bp). The average gene size is nearly 101 12 Complex Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) 1.5 kbp B) 1.2 kbp C) 750 bp D) 15000 bp C Learn
278 Genes that code for proteins are called 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) V-genes B) C-genes C) r-genes D) c-genes D Learn
279 Transcription factors 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Ligate Okazaki fragments B) Initiate transcription C) Unwind DNA helix D) Activate amino acids B Learn
280 The DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes: 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) DNA replication B) Transcription C) Reverse transcription D) Translation B Learn
281 The RNA which carries amino acids to the ribosome during translation is 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) mRNA B) rRNA C) tRNA D) mi RNA C Learn
282 Which is not a component of nucleotides found in nucleic acids? 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Pentose sugar B) Nitrogen base C) Phosphate group D) Aliphatic chain D Learn
283 Change of one base with another base in DNA is called ________. 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Mutation B) Translation C) Transcription D) Transmission A Learn
284 Select true statement 101 12 Medium Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Okazaki fragments prevent DNA replication B) DNA Polymerase III catalyzes elongation C) RNA primers prevent Okazaki fragments D) Ligase helps DNA replication D Learn
285 Enzymes elongating leading strand during replication is 101 12 Complex Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) DNA polymerase I B) DNA polymerase III C) Primase D) Topoisomerase I B Learn
286 Which of the following disease is not caused by bacteria? 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Typhoid B) Pneumonia C) Malaria D) Dysentery C Learn
287 Ringworm infection affects which body part? 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Skin B) Nails C) Scalp D) All of the above D Learn
288 Which cells are responsible for cell mediated immune response? 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) T cells B) B cells C) Macrophages D) Basophils A Learn
289 The antibody IgA is present in 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Serum B) Colostrum C) Blood D) None B Learn
290 Which cells phagocytose and destroy microbes entering our body? 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Neutrophils B) Basophils C) Eosinophils D) Lymphocytes A Learn
291 The RBC deficiency which results in reduced oxygen supply is caused due to 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Smoking B) Alcohol C) Tobacco D) Drug abuse A Learn
292 Allergy is controlled by which antibody? 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) IgA B) IgM C) IgG D) IgE D Learn
293 Widal test confirms 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Malaria B) Typhoid C) Cholera D) Pneumonia B Learn
294 Which cells produce antibodies? 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Macrophages B) B cells C) T cells D) Neutrophils B Learn
295 Down’s syndrome results due to 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Turner’s syndrome B) Extra 21 chromosome C) Extra Y chromosome D) Deletion of X B Learn
296 _____________ is the period between two divisions of a cell. 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Interkinesis B) Interphase C) Intergenic D) None B Learn
297 Which cells undergo transformation to cause cancer? 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Bone cells B) Nerve cells C) Body cells D) Normal cells D Learn
298 Benign tumours are _____ in nature. 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Localised B) Spreading C) Malignant D) Metastasizing A Learn
299 Screening of antibodies in blood is used for detection of 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Diabetes B) Cancer C) Alzheimers D) Hypertension B Learn
300 What is the other name for filariasis? 101 12 Easy Biology Biology in Human Welfare A) Elephantiasis B) Leukaemia C) Arthritis D) Osteoporosis A Learn
301 Active immunity involves ______ antibodies. 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Maternal B) Self produced C) Transferred D) Injected B Learn
302 Which cells transform into plasma cells that produce antibodies? 101 12 Medium Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Macrophages B) B cells C) T cells D) Neutrophils B Learn
303 The opening leading into the trachea is protected by 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Vocal cords B) Epiglottis C) Bronchioles D) Diaphragm B Learn
304 ELISA is used for detection of 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Cholesterol B) HIV antigen C) Blood glucose D) Pregnancy B Learn
305 Which of the following is an example for physiological barrier? 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Skin B) Mucus coating C) Bone marrow D) Stomach acid D Learn
306 Which cells are involved in cytotoxicity activity to kill cancer cells? 101 12 Medium Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) T cells B) B cells C) Basophils D) Neutrophils A Learn
307 In DNA fingerprinting, satellite DNA used as probe contains 101 12 Complex Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Very short segments B) Highly repetitive sequences C) Centromeric sequences D) Unique sequences B Learn
308 Pick the sexually transmitted disease - Chlamydiasis. It affects the 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Throat B) Lungs C) Urinary Tract D) Blood vessels C Learn
309 Which cells attack the body's own cells in autoimmune diseases? 101 12 Medium Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) T cells B) B cells C) Neutrophils D) Eosinophils A Learn
310 Which type of tumour grows slowly, remains confined and rarely spreads? 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Malignant tumour B) Benign tumour C) Metastasising tumour D) Deadly tumour B Learn
311 AIDS was first reported in the year 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) 1970 B) 1975 C) 1980 D) 1981 D Learn
312 asserted that health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well being is 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) UNICEF B) WHO C) DNA D) UNESCO B Learn
313 Which cells secrete antibodies? 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Cytotoxic T cells B) Helper T cells C) Plasma cells D) Phagocytes C Learn
314 The process of destruction of RBCs due to rupture by malaria parasite is called 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Embolism B) Haemolysis C) Phagocytosis D) Opsonisation B Learn
315 Which of the following correctly defines vaccination? 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Killing pathogens B) Increasing immunity C) Injecting antibodies D) All of the above B Learn
316 The process by which genetic information is copied from one nucleic acid to another nucleic acid is called 101 12 Medium Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Splicing B) Translation C) Transcription D) Replication D Learn
317 Based on function, the two categories of T cells are 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Helper & killer T cells B) B & plasma T cells C) Stem & effector T cells D) None A Learn
318 Active immunity can be acquired by 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Immunisation B) Giving Antiserum C) Both a) and A Learn
319 Which is not a character of malignant tumour cells? 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Unregulated growth B) Invasion C) Metastasis D) Contact inhibition D Learn
320 A disease that reduces the resistance power of the body against diseases is 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Typhoid B) Whooping cough C) AIDS D) Jaundice C Learn
321 The technique used for separating fragments of DNA is called 101 12 Medium Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Northern blot B) Western blot C) Southern blot D) Eastern blot C Learn
322 Widal test is specific for bacterial disease 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Typhoid B) Cholera C) Diphtheria D) Pertussis A Learn
323 Which antibody crosses placenta and provides immunity to the foetus? 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) IgG B) IgD C) IgM D) IgE A Learn
324 A tumour which may invade and destroy the surrounding normal tissues is called 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Malignant tumour B) Benign tumour C) Metastatic tumour D) Sarcoma A Learn
325 Helper T cells recognise antigens through 101 12 Medium Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) B cell receptors B) T cell receptors C) MHC proteins D) Immunoglobulins C Learn
326 the opening between the vocal cords is 101 12 Medium Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) larynx B) pharynx C) glottis D) epiglottis C Learn
327 AIDS affects the activity of enzyme 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Reverse transcriptase B) Lactate dehydrogenase C) Kinase D) Pepsin A Learn
328 Bacteria which causes dysentery is 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Escherichia B) Salmonella C) Shigella D) Vibrio C Learn
329 Which of the following is characteristic feature of childhood leukaemia? 101 12 Medium Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A)Anaemia B)Internal bleeding C) Muscular pain D) Elevated WBC level D Learn
330 The cells infected by HIV are mainly 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) WBCs B) Platelets C) RBCs D) Lymphocytes D Learn
331 Allergy is due to 101 12 Medium Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Release of chemicals B) Antigen-antibody reaction C) Release of histamine D) Effector T cell action C Learn
332 The ability of the immune system to recognise self cells is known as 101 12 Complex Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Self MHC restriction B) Autoimmunity C) Self tolerance D) Innate immunity C Learn
333 In DNA fingerprinting if Cohen's index is more than 0.25, it is considered as 101 12 Complex Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Unrelated individual B) Strong evidence C) Moderate evidence D) Weak evidence B Learn
334 the rearranged and processed beta-globin chain in sickle cell anemia is valine glutamic acid leucine threonine 101 12 Complex Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) val, glu, leu, thr B) val, pro, phe, thr C) val, glu, leu, thr D) val, glu, asp, thr C Learn
335 The first observed human immunodeficiency virus was 101 12 Medium Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) HIV-2 B) HIV-1 C) HTLV D) Visna virus B Learn
336 Which microbe is used for production of ethanol? 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Aspergillus niger B) Acetobacter aceti C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae D) Streptococcus C Learn
337 Which antibiotic was discovered by Alexander Fleming? 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Chloromycetin B) Erythromycin C) Penicillin D) Streptomycin C Learn
338 _________ is an example of fermented food product. 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Cheese B) Curd C) Bread D) All D Learn
339 LAB microbes help in conversion of ________ to ________. 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Protein; Fats B) Fats; Protein C) Milk; Curd D) Curd; Milk C Learn
340 An example of biocontrol agent is 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Salmonella B) Rhizobium C) Bacillus thuringiensis D) Aspergillus C Learn
341 The expanded form of BOD is ________. 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Biological Oxygen Deficiency B) Biochemical Oxygen Demand C) Biological Oxygen Demand D) Biochemical Oxygen Density B Learn
342 Biogas is a mixture of gases like _______ and _________. 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Methane; Carbon dioxide B) Oxygen; Nitrogen C) Hydrogen; Helium D) Carbon dioxide; Nitrogen A Learn
343 Which of the following microbes act as biofertilizers? 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Rhizobium B) Anabaena C) Trichoderma D) All of the above D Learn
344 Which antibiotic was produced by Penicillium notatum? 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Chloromycetin B) Bacitracin C) Erythromycin D) Penicillin D Learn
345 Probiotics are helpful to maintain 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) pH B) Moisture C) Acidity D) Normal gut flora D Learn
346 The antibiotic produced by Streptomyces is 101 12 Medium Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Cyclosporin B) Penicillin C) Cephalosporin D) Rapamycin C Learn
347 Which of the following microbe produce lactic acid? 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Aspergillus niger B) Clostridium C) Lactobacillus D) Pseudomonas C Learn
348 The enzyme streptokinase is produced by 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Pseudomonas B) Bacillus C) Streptococcus D) Aspergillus C Learn
349 Which of the following product is NOT obtained from microbes? 101 12 Easy Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) Curd B) Alcohol C) Morphine D) Citric acid C Learn
350 In sewage treatment, microbes help to reduce 101 12 Medium Biology Microbes in Human Welfare A) BOD B) COD C) TDS D) TSS A Learn
351 Which of the following is NOT a function performed by most microbes? 101 12 Medium Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Nitrogen fixation B) Carbon dioxide fixation C) Methane fixation D) Ammonia fixation C Learn
352 The antibiotic Tetracycline is obtained from 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Penicillium B) Bacillus C) Streptomyces D) Aspergillus C Learn
353 Which of the following microbes produce the immunosuppressive agent cyclosporin A? 101 12 Medium Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Trichoderma polysporum fungus) B) Streptococcus mutans bacterium) A Learn
354 Probiotics help restore the populations of: 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Harmful microorganisms B) Beneficial microorganisms C) Fungi D) Viruses B Learn
355 Which of the following is NOT used as a biofertilizer? 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Rhizobium B) Anabaena C) Salmonella D) Azotobacter C Learn
356 Which of the following processes involve use of microbes? 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Tanning of leather B) Production of enzymes C) Production of pigments D) All of the above D Learn
357 The antibiotic produced by the fungus Cephalosporium acremonium is: 101 12 Medium Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Erythromycin B) Penicillin C) Streptomycin D) Cephalosporin D Learn
358 Which of the following diseases can be prevented by vaccination? 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) AIDS B) Cancer C) Diabetes D) Diphtheria D Learn
359 Microbes can produce ________ which is used as immunosuppressive agent. 101 12 Medium Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Interleukin-2 B) Cyclosporin A C) TNF alpha D) IgG B Learn
360 Which of the following is NOT a fungal biocontrol agent? 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Trichoderma B) Bacillus C) Beauveria D) Metarhizium B Learn
361 The bacteria associated with root nodules of leguminous plants for nitrogen fixation is 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Azospirillum B) Azotobacter C) Rhizobium D) Anabaena C Learn
362 Which of the following is an industrially useful enzyme secreted by microbes? 101 12 Medium Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Amylase B) Acetylcholine esterase C) Catalase D) DNase A Learn
363 ______ are ingredients promoting the growth of microorganisms. 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Vaccines B) Antibiotics C) Prebiotics D) Probiotics C Learn
364 Which of the following is used for treating sewage water? 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Bacteria B) Fungi C) Algae D) Protozoans A Learn
365 Bacteriophages are viruses that destroy 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Bacteria B) Fungi C) Plants D) Animals A Learn
366 The process by which grapes are converted to wine is called: 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Hydrolysis B) Reduction C) Oxidation D) Fermentation D Learn
367 Which of the following microbes produce enzymes that help in clarification of fruit juices? 101 12 Medium Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Saccharomyces B) Aspergillus C) Lactobacillus D) Bacillus B Learn
368 Which form of drug is prepared from morphine obtained from opium poppy? 101 12 Medium Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Codeine B) Cocaine C) Heroin D) Methamphetamine C Learn
369 Foaming capacity of detergents can be increased by adding enzymes obtained from 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Pseudomonas B) Clostridium C) Bacillus D) Micrococcus C Learn
370 ________ help in getting rid of oil stains from laundry. 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Cellulases B) Lipases C) Invertases D) Amylases B Learn
371 Which antibiotic is most effective against Gram-positive bacteria? 101 12 Medium Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Streptomycin B) Tetracycline C) Penicillin D) Chloramphenicol C Learn
372 The microbes grow rapidly in sewage water due to abundance of 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Inorganic nutrients B) Organic matter C) Vitamins D) Moisture B Learn
373 Which of the following microbes produce the blood cholesterol lowering agents called statins? 101 12 Medium Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Penicillium notatum B) Monascus purpureus C) Trichoderma polysporum D)Cephalosporium acremonium B Learn
374 Microbial degradation of cellulose produces which gas? 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Methane B) Hydrogen sulphide C) Nitrogen D) Carbon dioxide D Learn
375 Which of the following microbes is not involved in production of antibiotics? 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Penicillium B) Bacillus C) Aspergillus D) Saccharomyces D Learn
376 Which of the following antibiotic drug targets bacterial cell wall? 101 12 Complex Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Ampicillin B) Kanamycin C) Tetracycline D) Erythromycin A Learn
377 The salt used for separating DNA fragments in agarose gel electrophoresis is 101 12 Complex Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Magnesium chloride B) Sodium acetate C) Sodium chloride D) Calcium chloride B Learn
378 Secondary metabolites produced by microbes include 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Enzymes B) Antibiotics C) Toxins D) All of the above D Learn
379 Anaerobic digestion of bio wastes produces 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Methane and carbon dioxide B) Oxygen and nitrogen C) Hydrogen and oxygen D) Hydrogen sulphide and nitrogen A Learn
380 Which of the following is least likely to be involved in biological control of insect pests? 101 12 Medium Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Baculoviruses B) Lady bird beetles C) Organophosphates D) Trichoderma C Learn
381 The enzyme responsible for converting milk into curd is: 101 12 Medium Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Renin B) Lysozyme C) Rennin D) Pepsin C Learn
382 Which of the following combinations is a probiotic product? 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Cheese and bread B) Yogurt and curd C) Wine and beer D) Rum and whisky B Learn
383 Identify the incorrect statement 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Fungi degrade cellulose B) Bacteria degrade cellulose C) Bacteria produce curd from milk D) Yeast produce alcohol from sugar C Learn
384 The bacterium used for commercial production of acetic acid is 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Lactobacillus B) Acetobacter aceti C) Clostridium D) Salmonella B Learn
385 Microbes can be used to extract metals from ores in a process called 101 12 Medium Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Hydrolysis B) Bioremediation C) Bioleaching D) Biomagnification C Learn
386 Identify the incorrect statement 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Multiples copies of gene can be produced by PCR B) Restriction enzymes cuts DNA randomly C) Process of DNA replication can be studied through gel electrophoresis D) DNA fragments can be isolated from gel through elution B Learn
387 The expansion of ELISA is 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Extremophilic Linked Immuno Serological Assay B) Enzyme-linked Immuno-sorbent Assay C) Exert Linked Immuno Serological Assay D) Exon Linked Immuno Serological Assay B Learn
388 In gel electrophoresis DNA fragments are separated based on their 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Charge B) Size C) Solubility D) Density B Learn
389 The sequence of bases that is the same in the forward and reverse is 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Repeated sequence B) Template sequence C) Palindrome D) Recognition sequence C Learn
390 The first recombinant DNA was created by combining DNA from 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Two bacteria B) A bacteria and a virus C) A bacteria and yeast D) A bacteria and plasmid D Learn
391 Agarose gel electrophoresis is used to separate 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) RNA fragments B) DNA fragments C) Proteins D) Amino acids B Learn
392 The restriction enzyme isolated from E.Coli Ry 13 is 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) EcoRII B) EcoRI C) EcoRIII D) EcoRIV B Learn
393 Which among the following produce identical copies from a single DNA fragment? 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Restriction enzymes B) Plasmids C) Selectable markers D) Polymerase Chain Reaction D Learn
394 An origin of replication enables a piece of DNA to 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) act as a vector B) replicate autonomously C) Translation D) Transcription B Learn
395 The palindromic sequence that is recognised by EcoRI is 101 12 Medium Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) GAA GGA B) GAA TTC C) GAA TTG D) GAA TTT B Learn
396 In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments move towards 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Cathode B) Anode C) Origin D) Equilibrium B Learn
397 All parts of bioreactor ensures ideal condition except 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Temperature B) Nutrients C) Dissolved oxygen D) Turbidity D Learn
398 Genetic engineering was made possible by discovery of 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Transformation B) Conjugation C) Restriction enzymes and ligases D) All C Learn
399 The proteins synthesised from recombinant DNA are called 101 12 Easy Biology Biotechnology and Its applications A) Recombinant proteins B) Translated proteins C) Cloned proteins D) Lysed proteins A Learn
400 The process of extraction of specific DNA fragments from total genomic DNA using restriction enzymes is called 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) Gene enrichment B) Gene amplification C) Gene cloning D) Gene extraction C Learn
401 Identify the incorrect match 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) Cellulases : Degrade cell wall B) Amylases : Breakdown starch C) Lipases : Digest fats D) Restriction enzymes : Make cuts at specific positions in DNA D Learn
402 The expanded term RCH in context of human health is 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) Radiation Control Help B) Reproductive Child Health C) Rich Cultural Heritage D) None B Learn
403 Genetic engineering techniques are applied in the field of 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) Agriculture B) Medicine C) Environment D) All D Learn
404 Cloned genes are harvested from bioreactor in large quantities due to 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) Increased biomass B) Cellular differentiation C) Mitotic cell division D) Dedifferentiation A Learn
405 Which of the following is a feature of cloning vector? 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) High copy number B) Promoter C) Origin of replication D) All of the above D Cloning vectors are DNA molecules that are used to artificially carry foreign genetic material into another cell, where it can be replicated and/or expressed. A cloning vector must possess several key features to be useful for cloning: 1. Origin of Replication (ori): This is a sequence of DNA at which replication is initiated. It allows the vector to replicate independently of the host's chromosomal DNA. 2. Selectable Marker: These are genes that confer resistance to antibiotics or other toxins. They enable researchers to identify and maintain cells that have taken up the vector in the presence of a selective agent. 3. Multiple Cloning Site (MCS) or Polylinker: This is a short DNA sequence that contains several restriction enzyme sites where foreign DNA can be inserted. The presence of multiple sites allows for the convenient insertion of a DNA fragment using a variety of enzymes. 4. Size: Vectors are generally small to facilitate the insertion of DNA and the transfer of the vector into the host cell. 1. Promoter Sequences: For expression vectors, sequences that signal the start of transcription are necessary for the expression of the cloned gene in the host organism. 2. Terminator Sequences: These are sequences that signal the end of transcription. 3. Reporter Genes: These are genes that are not necessary for selection but are useful for determining if the cloning process was successful. They may encode proteins that are easily detectable, such as enzymes that confer color changes or fluorescence. 4. High Copy Number: Vectors often have a high copy number within the host cells, which means that many copies of the vector (and therefore the inserted DNA) are present, leading to a high yield of the cloned gene. 5. Stability: Vectors should be genetically stable so that the inserted DNA does not get lost or rearranged during replication in the host. 6. Compatibility with the Host: The vector must be able to propagate in the host organism that will be used for cloning. Depending on the specific application, different types of vectors may be used, such as plasmids, bacteriophages, cosmids, artificial chromosomes, and viral vectors, each with its own set of features tailored to the cloning process. Learn
406 The process of transfer of DNA fragments into a suitable vector is termed as 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) Translation B) Transcription C) Replication D) Ligation D Learn
407 The expanded form cDNA is 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) Complimentary DNA B) Condensed DNA C) Cromosomal DNA D) Conjugated DNA A Learn
408 The key tools required for recombinant DNA technology are 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) Genes B) Restriction enzymes, polymerases and ligases C) Cells D) Chromosomes B Learn
409 Key feature of bioreactors not found in shake flasks is 101 12 Medium Biology Ecology A) Sterile conditions B) Better monitoring C) Better growth conditions D) Higher yields D Learn
410 Bt cotton was created by incorporating toxic gene from 101 12 Medium Biology Ecology A) Pseudomonas B) E.coli C) Bacillus thuringiensis D) Aspergillus C Learn
411 The enzymes which recognise and make cuts at specific positions within the DNA are called ________. 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) Exonucleases B) Endonucleases C) Ligases D) Polymerases B Learn
412 The three basic steps in creating genetically modified organism are 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) Isolation, purification, storage B) Identification, growth, purification C) Identification, introduction, selection D) Isolation, modification, replication C Learn
413 DNA denatures due to breaking of 101 12 Medium Biology Ecology A) Glycosidic bonds B) Phosphodiester bonds C) Hydrogen bonds D) Peptide bonds C Learn
414 DNA ligase joins the DNA fragments by 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) Covalent bonding B) Hydrogen bonding C) Ionic bonding D) van der Waals forces A Learn
415 In PCR technique denaturation of DNA is carried out at 101 12 Medium Biology Ecology A) Low temperature B) 90 degree Celsius C) Room temperature D) 70 degree Celsius B Learn
416 The process of introducing DNA fragments into a host cell is called 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) Transformation B) Transfection C) Translation D) Transduction A Learn
417 Which of the following produce antibodies? 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) T cells B) B cells C) Basophils D) None B Learn
418 In lac operon, Jacob and Monad postulated 101 12 Medium Biology Ecology A) Positive control B) Negative regulation C) Positive regulation D) Consitutive expression B Learn
419 Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t restriction enzymes 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) Isolated from bacteria B) Recognise palindromic sequences C) Used for fragmentation of DNA D) No specificity of recognition sequences D Learn
420 Which technique is used to amplify DNA in vitro ? 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) Southern hybridisation B) ELISA C) Polymerase Chain Reaction D) Restriction digestion C Learn
421 The key feature that is common to cloning and expression vectors is 101 12 Medium Biology Ecology A) Promoter B) High copy number C) Origin of replication D) Reporter genes C Learn
422 The first antibiotic produced by recombinant DNA technology is 101 12 Complex Biology Ecology A) Chloromycetin B) Tetracycline C) Penicillin D) Bacterial alkaline phosphatase D Learn
423 Select the true statement about plasmid 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) Form of adaptor molecules B) Role in recombination reaction C) Cannot replicate in host D) Small circular DNA D Learn
424 The mixture of microbes cultured for large scale production of products is called 101 12 Medium Biology Ecology A) Inoculum B) Biomass C) Biofertilizer D) Effluent A Learn
425 Fermentation process would include the use of microbes like 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) Bacteria B) Fungi C) Algae D) Any of the above D Learn
426 Bt cotton has been genetically engineered to express 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) CryIAc toxin B) ADA enzyme C) Insulin protein D) Interferon A Learn
427 Golden rice has been enriched with 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) Boron B) Gold particles C) Vitamin A D) Iron C Learn
428 Which of the following produces insulin in large scale commercially? 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) Bacillus thuringiensis B) Escherichia coli C) Agrobacterium tumefaciens D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae B Learn
429 RNA interference (RNAi) involves 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) Amplification of DNA B) Silencing of mRNA C) Cutting of DNA D) Activation of DNA B Learn
430 An example of a transgenic plant is 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) Bt brinjal B) Curd C) Bread D) Wine A Learn
431 The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to treat 101 12 Medium Biology Ecology A) Cancer B) AIDS C) ADA deficiency D) Diabetes C Learn
432 Bacillus thuringiensis is used to produce 101 12 Easy Biology Ecology A) EcoRI B) Biogas C) Penicillin D) Bt toxin D Learn
433 Select the incorrect statement 101 12 Easy Biology Ecosystem A) All transgenic animals are mice B) Transgenic animals can be used to test safety of vaccines C) Gene of interest is inserted to make transgenic animals D) Transgenic animals can produce biological products for therapy A Learn
434 Tools for genetic engineering include 101 12 Easy Biology Ecosystem A) Restriction enzymes B) Expression vectors C) PCR D) All of the above D Learn
435 ________ method is suitable for virus-free plants from meristems and stem tips. 101 12 Easy Biology Ecosystem A) Protoplast fusion B) Micro propagation C) Tissue culture D) Hybridisation C Learn
436 The branch of biology dealing with relationships of living organisms with their environment is 101 12 Easy Biology Ecosystem A) Autecology B) Population ecology C) Synecology D) Ecology D Learn
437 Age distribution in a population is represented graphically by a 101 12 Easy Biology Ecosystem A) Age bar diagram B) Age pyramid C) Growth curve D) Logistics curve B Learn
438 Select the incorrect statement 101 12 Easy Biology Ecosystem A) Groups of individuals of a species living in a geographical area constitute a population B) All populations have emigration and immigration C) Death rate of a population expressed per capita per unit time D) Average birth rate is always equal to average death rate B Learn
439 The number of individuals present per unit area is referred to as 101 12 Easy Biology Ecosystem A) Birth rate B) Death rate C) Natality D) Population density D Learn
440 Which mode of interaction between two species is beneficial to both species? 101 12 Easy Biology Ecosystem A) Commensalism B) Amensalism C) Competition D) Mutualism D Learn
441 ________ are the most common morphological defense evolved in plants against herbivory. 101 12 Easy Biology Ecosystem A) Thorns B) Toxins C) Stinging hairs D) Mimicry A Learn
442 Select the species interaction where one species is harmed and other is benefitted 101 12 Easy Biology Ecosystem A) Amensalism B) Predation C) Parasitism D) Competition C Learn
443 The rate at which individuals are added to a population expressed per individual per unit time is termed as 101 12 Easy Biology Ecosystem A) Natality B) Mortality C) Age distribution D) Emigration A Learn
444 Select two critical factors that determine the carrying capacity of an environment 101 12 Medium Biology Ecosystem A) Water and nutrients availability B) Mating patterns and fecundity C) Birth rate and death rate D) Predation pressure and parasite load A Learn
445 In a stable population, the annual birth rates and death rates are 101 12 Easy Biology Ecosystem A) Equal B) Zero C) Constant D) None A Learn
446 What is the main source of energy for most ecosystems? 101 12 Easy Biology Ecosystem A) Wind B) Sun C) Soil D) Water B Learn
447 What does the term 'biomass' refer to in an ecosystem? 101 12 Medium Biology Ecosystem A) Number of individuals B) Amount of water C) Organic material D) Types of species C Learn
448 Which component is not a part of an ecosystem? 101 12 Easy Biology Ecosystem A) Producers B) Consumers C) Decomposers D) Buildings D Learn
449 Primary productivity is a measure of? 101 12 Medium Biology Ecosystem A) Water quality B) Solar energy captured C) Number of producers D) Animal population B Learn
450 In a food chain, the primary consumers are usually? 101 12 Easy Biology Ecosystem A) Carnivores B) Herbivores C) Omnivores D) Decomposers B Learn
451 What is the role of decomposers in an ecosystem? 101 12 Medium Biology Ecosystem A) Produce energy B) Consume plants C) Break down dead matter D) Capture sunlight C Learn
452 What is the approximate efficiency of energy transfer between trophic levels? 101 12 Medium Biology Ecosystem A) 90% B) 50% C) 10% D) 1% C Learn
453 Which trophic level do herbivores occupy in a food chain? 101 12 Easy Biology Ecosystem A) First B) Second C) Third D) Fourth B Learn
454 What is an ecological pyramid? 101 12 Medium Biology Ecosystem A) A geographical structure B) Representation of energy flow C) A type of ecosystem D) A conservation strategy B Learn
455 An inverted pyramid of biomass is typically found in? 101 12 Complex Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Forests B) Grasslands C) Oceans D) Deserts C Learn
456 What defines the 'standing crop' in an ecosystem? 101 12 Medium Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Total water volume B) Biomass of living organisms C) Number of species D) Area of land B Learn
457 What type of nutrient cycle includes the atmosphere? 101 12 Medium Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Sedimentary B) Gaseous C) Aquatic D) Terrestrial B Learn
458 What is the main difference between a food chain and a food web? 101 12 Medium Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Complexity of connections B) Types of organisms involved C) Geographic location D) Time of day active A Learn
459 In which layer of the atmosphere does most photosynthesis occur? 101 12 Medium Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Troposphere B) Stratosphere C) Mesosphere D) Thermosphere A Learn
460 What is the term for the process of converting inorganic carbon to organic compounds? 101 12 Easy Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Respiration B) Decomposition C) Photosynthesis D) Mineralization C Learn
461 In an aquatic ecosystem, primary producers are typically? 101 12 Easy Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Fish B) Mammals C) Phytoplankton D) Birds C Learn
462 What is the main function of producers in an ecosystem? 101 12 Medium Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Decompose organic matter B) Convert sunlight to energy C) Prey on other organisms D) Pollinate plants B Learn
463 Which factor is not typically considered a component of an ecosystem? 101 12 Easy Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Sunlight B) Temperature C) Human structures D) Soil C Learn
464 The process of nutrient release from organic matter to inorganic form is called? 101 12 Medium Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Assimilation B) Mineralization C) Nitrification D) Photosynthesis B Learn
465 An example of a primary consumer in a terrestrial ecosystem is a? 101 12 Easy Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Lion B) Eagle C) Rabbit D) Shark C Learn
466 What percentage of Earth's species are animals? 101 12 Easy Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) 70% B) 50% C) 30% D) 90% A Learn
467 Which region has the highest species diversity? 101 12 Easy Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Tropics B) Temperate C) Polar D) Desert A Learn
468 What is a major cause of species extinction? 101 12 Medium Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Habitat loss B) Overpopulation C) Climate change D) All of the above A Learn
469 What percentage of Indian species are endemic? 101 12 Medium Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) 8.1% B) 10% C) 15% D) 5% A Learn
470 What is the significance of biodiversity hotspots? 101 12 Medium Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) High species richness B) Endangered species C) Both A and B D) None of the above C Learn
471 What are sacred groves? 101 12 Easy Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Religious sites B) Conservation areas C) Both A and B D) None of the above C Learn
472 How is species diversity estimated? 101 12 Medium Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Area size B) Number of species C) Both A and B D) None of the above B Learn
473 What is the main reason for high diversity in tropics? 101 12 Medium Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Stable climate B) More sunlight C) Both A and B D) None of the above C Learn
474 What is in situ conservation? 101 12 Easy Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Protecting species in natural habitat B) Breeding in captivity C) Both A and B D) None of the above A Learn
475 What is ex situ conservation? 101 12 Easy Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Protecting species in natural habitat B) Breeding in captivity C) Both A and B D) None of the above B Learn
476 What causes habitat fragmentation? 101 12 Medium Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Deforestation B) Urbanization C) Both A and B D) None of the above C Learn
477 What is the main threat to biodiversity? 101 12 Medium Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Pollution B) Hunting C) Habitat loss D) Invasive species C Learn
478 Why is biodiversity important? 101 12 Easy Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Ecological balance B) Economic value C) Both A and B D) None of the above C Learn
479 What are the effects of losing biodiversity? 101 12 Medium Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Ecosystem destabilization B) Loss of resources C) Both A and B D) None of the above C Learn
480 How many species are estimated to be undiscovered? 101 12 Medium Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Millions B) Thousands C) Hundreds D) None A Learn
481 What is the role of pollinators in biodiversity? 101 12 Easy Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Spreading diseases B) Pollination C) Decreasing plant diversity D) None of the above B Learn
482 What does the species-area curve show? 101 12 Medium Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Species richness increases with area B) Species richness decreases with area C) No relation D) None of the above A Learn
483 What is the primary cause of the current high rate of species extinctions? 101 12 Medium Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Natural causes B) Human activities C) Climate change D) Alien species invasion B Learn
484 What is the major challenge in conserving biodiversity? 101 12 Medium Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Lack of awareness B) Insufficient funding C) Both A and B D) None of the above C Learn
485 What is the concept of biodiversity hotspots based on? 101 12 Complex Biology Biodiversity & Conservation A) Species richness and endemism B) Size of the area C) Number of endangered species D) Climate conditions A Learn
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